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HenryTMensch

HenryTMensch

New York, NY
December 2004

MAR 24, 2005 04:00 PM

Guildenstern said:

HenryTMensch said:

Guildenstern said:
Miller does not address banning of firearms. Miller addresses possession of NFA firearm without the required Federal Tax Stamp (regulation). You are warping NFA and the regulation of classes of firearms as justification to your theory on banning.



Here's the relevant language of Miller:

In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a "shotgun [*286] having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length" at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense.


(emphasis added)

In other words, the Second Amendment does not even apply to certain firearms in particular, absent a specific, technical showing that the firearm in question is related to militia use. The second amendment simply DOES NOT APPLY ("we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument."wink. Therefore, there is no second amendment restriction to putting a tax on it, regulating it, or banning it. If the second amendment doesn't guarantee the right to keep and bear such an instrument, how can the second amendment bar banning it?

Riddle me that.



NFA classifies any firearm with a butt stock and a barrel under 18 inches as a Short Barrel Rifle (SBR). NFA also specifies that a SBR is not illegal to own as long as you do the paperwork and pay the Federal Tax Stamp (FTS) Ego, Miller addresses a NFA violation with affirming the regulations to legal ownership of such a firearms as set forth by NFA. NFA does not ban SBRs, specifically, short barrel shotguns. And counter to your claim, access to SBRs are not banned (Brady exclusions apply). Incidentally, My Steyr AUG has an 14 inch barrel but dues not fall under NFA rules. What you are missing, and you do seem to miss the a lot of the fin point in your ham-fisted treatment of the law, is that there is a barrel length and overall length of the firearm clause.



Let's try this again:

Here's the relevant language of Miller:

In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a "shotgun [*286] having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length" at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense.


(emphasis added)

In other words, the Second Amendment does not even apply to certain firearms in particular, absent a specific, technical showing that the firearm in question is related to militia use. The second amendment simply DOES NOT APPLY ("we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument."wink. Therefore, there is no second amendment restriction to putting a tax on it, regulating it, or banning it. If the second amendment doesn't guarantee the right to keep and bear such an instrument, how can the second amendment bar banning it?

Riddle me that.



Where does Miller say "regluation ok, ban not okay?" Miller says the second amendment DOESN'T APPLY to firearms absent a technical showing that the firearm is related to militia use. If the second amendment DOESN'T APPLY, how can the second amendment forbid a ban?

I liked your suggested reading, especially United States v. Hager. A case dealing with two brothers arrested for drug trafficking and possession of a firearm by an individual with a felony conviction (violation of Brady).



Also, the brothers in Hager were convicted of illegal possession of a machine gun, which had nothing to with their drug offenses. The Hager Court held that the ban on machine guns was not a violation of the brothers' second amendment rights.



But it has all to do with a NFA violation.



Here's the text of the statute the Hager brothers were found to have violated:

18 U.S.C.A. §§ 922(o)(1):

(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful for any person to transfer or possess a machinegun.
(2) This subsection does not apply with respect to--
(A) a transfer to or by, or possession by or under the authority of, the United States or any department or agency thereof or a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision thereof; or
(B) any lawful transfer or lawful possession of a machinegun that was lawfully possessed before the date this subsection takes effect [effective May 19, 1986].



Sounds like a ban to me.

The best part is the court’s comments at being perplexed at why defense counsel would argue infringement of right based on membership in a militia while also successfully excluding prosecution from introducing evidence of militia membership. Truly precious and definitely a keeper. Your cites mostly deal with NFA and Brady violations which are not germane to the discussion of out right banning,



All of the cases I cited dealt with the parts of statutes that ban particular kinds of firearms and none of those statutes were held to be an unconstitutional violation of the second amendment. In fact, the constitutionality of those statutes was UPHELD in spite of specific challenges analogous to the challenge you are making to my argument that .50 cal rifles could and should be banned.



Machine guns are not banned, sawed-off shotguns (SBRs) are not banned, I can get on gunbroker.com right now and start the ball rolling on a NFA Class 3 purchase. Or better yet, find a Class 3 dealer locally and go through them. Again, Federal legislation does not ban firearms (Brady exemptions apply), just classifies with certain classifications requiring more paperwork and a FTS to own.



Just because there are certain exceptions to a ban, it does not mean that there is no ban. Here, is this a ban?

(1)Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful to sell or possess a motor vehicle.
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to --
(a) HenryTMensch; or
(b) any motor vehicle purchased on the 23rd of March.



Is that a ban? Hmmmm? If that's a "regulation" and "regulation" of firearms is okay but "bans" aren't, I have some propsed language for a .50 cal rifle "regulation."

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful to sell or possess a .50 Caliber Rifle.
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to --
(a) People who were born on February 29th; or
(b) any .50 Caliber Rifle sold or possessed lawfully prior to January 1, 1912.



surreal

and let me borrow from one of your cites: Miller simply "did not hold . . . that the Second Amendment is an absolute prohibition against all regulation of the manufacture, transfer and possession of any instrument capable of being used in military action." The key word being “regulation” not “ban”. NFA is a regulation, not a ban. AWB was a regulation, not a ban. CA’s anti-50 cal legislation is a regulation, not a ban.



Well, the United States Congress disagrees with you. It, and the federal courts, routinely refers to those provisions and provisions like them as "bans." I assure you that Congress and the Courts are far more sensitive to the particular terms of art that they employ than you are. You can't even keep the terminology you want to argue over straight. ("restriction" / "regulation" / "ban" / "prohibit") You are attempting to create a semantic distinction between "ban" and "regulate" that does not exist outside of your fevered imagination. It certainly doesn't exist in the corpus of federal jurisprudence related to the second amendment or Congressional legislation related to firearms regulation.



NFA rules apply, you should get used to the term because it is used all the time when dealing with Class 3 firearm market. In your fever you have neglected the nuance that Miller bans nor regulates noting that NFA had not already addressed. Further, you fail to distinguish that there is no Federal level ban on firearm ownership (Brady exclusions apply), just regulation. The Dictinoary.com definition of “ban” is to prohibit use, especially by official decree. AWB, NFA, CA’s legislation in no way prohibits use of a .50-cal, sawed off shotgun, machine gun, just regulations to jump through for legal ownership and no that same foot: Miller addresses not use but legal ownership/possession of a NFA classified firearm without following NFA procedures.



You missed the point. Congress and the courts use the term "ban" for the provisions that I discussed and which you insist are mere "regulation." Congress and the courts pay attention to the terminology they use, whereas you can't keep your terminology straight between one post and the next.

Try reading Nordyke v. King, 364 F.3d 1025, 1025 (9th Cir. 2004). Unlike your sources which are encumbered by NFA or Brady Bill violations, this case speaks directly to legality of a State or Locality banning possession of and gun and ammunition sales. The background is that a gun show had historically taken place at a county fairground and the locality passed an ordinance banning the possession (with exceptions) and sale of firearms and ammunition on county property. The ninth circuit found the ban (technically, regulation) legal due to the fact that the ordinance did not duly infringe on the possession and sale of firearms and ammunition off of county property. In a nutshell: total ban illegal, partial ban (regulation) legal.
[Edited on Mar 24, 2005 by Guildenstern]



In fact, the Court in Nordyke UPHELD the ban.

Why don't you learn how to read a judicial opinion or understand the basics of the federal court system before you try to quote precedent to me?



Interesting that you failed to read and I will repeat: “The ninth circuit found the ban (technically, regulation) legal” Legal, upheld… same thing?



No. Here's what you said:

The ninth circuit found the ban (technically, regulation) legal due to the fact that the ordinance did not duly infringe on the possession and sale of firearms and ammunition off of county property. In a nutshell: total ban illegal, partial ban (regulation) legal.



Here's what the Nordyke Court said:

we have squarely held that the Second Amendment guarantees a collective right for the states to maintain an armed militia and offers no protection for the individual's right to bear arms. ... individuals lack standing to raise a Second Amendment challenge to a law regulating firearms.


Nordyke v. King, 319 F.3d 1185(9th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 2003) (emphasis added)

Not only did the Nordyke Court NOT say that "total ban illegal, partial ban (regulation) legal," it said that an individual can't even ARGUE that a ban is a violation of the second amendment. The Courts in the Ninth Circuit won't even listen to such an argument. Nordyke does not support you in any way shape or form. It supports my argument.

Earth to Guildenstern: You don't have the first clue about the law of the second amendment. Give up. You will never beat me in this argument.



Coming from one who thinks machine guns and sawed-off shotguns are banned, this is truly the statement of one of the great legal scholars of our time. Like I said, both positions are based on opinion till SCOTUS make a definitive ruling. A smart man would have realized that there is no winner or loser in this discussion.



Right now, Miller is the definitive ruling on whether or not it is constitutional to regulate, which in the real world includes ban, firearms. In short, the law today says such regulations (including bans) are constitutional. A smart man would have realized that I ripped his balls off and shoved them into a shredder in this discussion.

HenryTMensch

HenryTMensch

New York, NY
December 2004

MAR 24, 2005 04:30 PM

Guildenstern said:

HenryTMensch said:
In other words, the Second Amendment does not even apply to certain firearms in particular, absent a specific, technical showing that the firearm in question is related to militia use. The second amendment simply DOES NOT APPLY ("we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument."wink. Therefore, there is no second amendment restriction to putting a tax on it, regulating it, or banning it. If the second amendment doesn't guarantee the right to keep and bear such an instrument, how can the second amendment bar banning it?

Riddle me that.



What you are missing, and you do seem to miss the a lot of the fin point in your ham-fisted treatment of the law, is that there is a barrel length and overall length of the firearm clause.



If I missed it, then the Circuit Courts missed it too:

United States v. Rybar, 103 F.3d 273 (3rd Cir. Ct. of Apps. 1996)

In fact, the Miller Court assigned no special importance to the character of the weapon itself, but instead demanded a reasonable relationship between its "possession or use" and militia-related activity.


United States v. Hager, 22 Fed. Appx. 130 (4th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 2001):

We previously have held that the Second Amendment does not create an absolute individual right to bear arms, but "only confers a collective right of keeping and bearing arms which must bear a 'reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia.'"


United States v. Metcalf, 2000 U.S. App. LEXIS 15752 (6th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 2000)

Metcalf steadfastly maintains in his third claim that the Second Amendment protects his right to keep an arsenal of destructive weapons and other firepower that is otherwise expressly prohibited by statute. This is simply not the law.
In [United States v. Miller, 307 U.S. 174, 83 L. Ed. 1206, 59 S. Ct. 816 (1939)] the Supreme Court did not reach the question of the extent to which a weapon which is "part of the ordinary military equipment" or whose "use could contribute to the common defense" may be regulated. In holding that the absence of evidence placing the weapon involved in the charges against Miller in one of these categories precluded the trial court from quashing the indictment on Second Amendment grounds, the Court did not hold the converse--that the Second Amendment is an absolute prohibition against all regulation of the manufacture, transfer and possession of any instrument capable of being used in military action.

United States v. Warin, 530 F.2d 103, 106 (6th Cir. 1976).


Quilici v. Morton Grove, 695 F.2d 261 (7th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 1982)

The second amendment provides that "A well regulated Militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." U.S. Const. amend. II. Construing this language according to its plain meaning, it seems clear that the right to bear arms is inextricably connected to the preservation of a militia. This is precisely the manner in which the Supreme Court interpreted the second amendment in United States v. Miller, 307 U.S. 174, 83 L. Ed. 1206, 59 S. Ct. 816 (1939), the only Supreme Court case specifically addressing that amendment's scope. There the Court held that the right to keep and bear arms extends only to those arms which are necessary to maintain a well regulated militia.
…
Under the controlling authority of Miller we conclude that the right to keep and bear handguns is not guaranteed by the second amendment.


United States v. Hale, 978 F.2d 1016 (8th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 1992)

The rule emerging from Miller is that, absent a showing that the possession of a certain weapon has "some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well-regulated militia," the Second Amendment does not guarantee the right to possess the weapon.
…
Since the Miller decision, no federal court has found any individual's possession of a military weapon to be "reasonably related to a well regulated militia."


Silveira v. Lockyer, 312 F.3d 1052 (9th Cir. Ct. of Apps. 2002)

As a result of its phrasing of its holding in the negative, however, the Miller Court's opinion stands only for the proposition that the possession of certain weapons is not protected, and offers little guidance as to what rights the Second Amendment does protect.
…
The only post-Miller reference by the Supreme Court to the scope of the amendment occurred in Lewis v. United States, … in which the Court noted, in a footnote dismissing a Second Amendment challenge to a felon-in-possession conviction, that the federal gun control laws at issue did not "trench upon any constitutionally protected liberties," citing Miller in support of this observation. In that footnote, [the Supreme Court in] Lewis characterized the Miller holding as follows: "The Second Amendment guarantees no right to keep and bear a firearm that does not have 'some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well-regulated militia.'" Id. (quoting Miller, 307 U.S. at 178).


(emphasis added throughout)

All of these Circuit Courts, as well as the Supreme Court in Lewis, have characterized Miller in exactly the same way I have. i.e. Miller says that if you can't show a "reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well-regulated militia" the second amendment does NOT APPLY to the firearm in question. If I'm ham-fisted, so is the bulk of the federal judiciary.

[Edited on Mar 24, 2005 by HenryTMensch]

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