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skeptik

skeptik

New Orleans, LA
February 2004

JUN 07, 2007 10:11 PM

So the question remains.
"Now, who's going to enforce that particular law?"

emotedcreations

emotedcreations

Germany
July 2006

JUN 07, 2007 10:34 PM

skeptik said:
So the question remains.
"Now, who's going to enforce that particular law?"


Musashi

Fear the wrath...

Hafu

Hafu

Charlottesville, VA
February 2005

JUN 07, 2007 10:41 PM

musashi is awesome and everything... but he is no match for Ichi The Killer.

NickFaust

NickFaust

USA
April 2004

JUN 08, 2007 05:09 AM

skeptik said:

NickFaust said:
You are making a constitutional argument about a purported criminal matter. To say that the President exceeded his authority, under the UN charter, in invading and occupying Iraq, does not make it a criminal matter. It may make it a violation of the UN Charter, but violating the UN Charter is not a "crime". A crime implies the violation of some criminal or statutory code, something that simply does not exist in this situation. And since the US is not a signatory to the ICC, there is no basis on which to charge it or its leaders with crimes at the Hague.

In short, no, the war is no illegal. Immoral, inappropriate, insane, but not illegal.



Well, no - that's neither what I said, nor is it what I meant.

Under Article VI, treaty obligations are "the supreme law of the land." By prosecuting a war in contravention of the UN Charter (which requires authorization - which we didn't get), we have violated a treaty. Therefore we have violated "the supreme law of the land." Which is, by definition, illegal.

It would only be a criminal act if there were an applicable criminal statute, with criminal penalties, that fobids it. And I never used the word "criminal."



That might make it unconsitutional. It does not make it illegal. And, in order for someone to be brought before a tribunal, there needs to be a specific charge. It cannot be "violated the law of the land." At least now that the Soviet Union is defunct. (I say that because this language begins to sound like "crimes against the state" to me.)

So, you say you are not talking about "criminal" but if you are talking about anything other than a civil action, there is no basis on which to have a trial, or to bring "charges" as the Consitution does not prescribe penalties etc. That is what a criminal code does. Which was my original point.

NickFaust

NickFaust

USA
April 2004

JUN 08, 2007 05:10 AM

skeptik said:
So the question remains.
"Now, who's going to enforce that particular law?"



It is not a "law," it is an article in the Consitution. "Enforcement" implies violation of some aspect of a code.

There is no "enforcement" language in the Constitution. The only access to the courts would be through a civil action.

NickFaust

NickFaust

USA
April 2004

JUN 08, 2007 05:12 AM

oyaji said:

NickFaust said:

oyaji said:

NickFaust said:
You are making a constitutional argument about a purported criminal matter. To say that the President exceeded his authority, under the UN charter, in invading and occupying Iraq, does not make it a criminal matter. It may make it a violation of the UN Charter, but violating the UN Charter is not a "crime". A crime implies the violation of some criminal or statutory code, something that simply does not exist in this situation. And since the US is not a signatory to the ICC, there is no basis on which to charge it or its leaders with crimes at the Hague.

In short, no, the war is no illegal. Immoral, inappropriate, insane, but not illegal.



Waging aggressive war is a war crime. People have been tried and convicted for it, whether or not the governments they represented or the countries of which they were nationals were signatories to any particular treaty.



Well, A) this is only true in ICC, which the US is not a part of but, B) the assertion that this is an "agressive" war would have to be proven, and C) the US said, and will say, that they war was fought because Iraq posed a threat do to its being out of compliance with UN resolutions.

All of which is moot becuase any scenario in which the US goes on trial in the Hague is pure fantasy.



I agree that it's moot since it's unlikely that any tribunal will wind up adjudicating charges against anyone in the Bush administration. But it's misleading to say that it would only apply if we were subject to the ICC. War crimes tribunals may be constituted more or less at any time.



That is true. They may also be ignored at any time.

skeptik

skeptik

New Orleans, LA
February 2004

JUN 10, 2007 12:28 AM

NickFaust said:

skeptik said:

NickFaust said:
You are making a constitutional argument about a purported criminal matter. To say that the President exceeded his authority, under the UN charter, in invading and occupying Iraq, does not make it a criminal matter. It may make it a violation of the UN Charter, but violating the UN Charter is not a "crime". A crime implies the violation of some criminal or statutory code, something that simply does not exist in this situation. And since the US is not a signatory to the ICC, there is no basis on which to charge it or its leaders with crimes at the Hague.

In short, no, the war is no illegal. Immoral, inappropriate, insane, but not illegal.



Well, no - that's neither what I said, nor is it what I meant.

Under Article VI, treaty obligations are "the supreme law of the land." By prosecuting a war in contravention of the UN Charter (which requires authorization - which we didn't get), we have violated a treaty. Therefore we have violated "the supreme law of the land." Which is, by definition, illegal.

It would only be a criminal act if there were an applicable criminal statute, with criminal penalties, that fobids it. And I never used the word "criminal."



That might make it unconsitutional. It does not make it illegal. And, in order for someone to be brought before a tribunal, there needs to be a specific charge. It cannot be "violated the law of the land." At least now that the Soviet Union is defunct. (I say that because this language begins to sound like "crimes against the state" to me.)



Cute. But no, that's not what "supreme law of the land" means in the context of Article VI.

Article VI says two things in regard to treaties:
1) That a treaty, once lawfully entered into, i.e. ratified, carries the force of law. It's provisions can't be unilaterally ignored out of convenience. That to violate the provisions of a treaty without first withdrawing from it violates U.S. law, and carries whatever penalties are spelled out in the treaty in question. Only if those penalties are defined as criminal penalties would such violation be a crime.
2) That this law is "supreme." That is, it cannot legally be superseded by the provisions of any subsequent law enacted by Congress. Again, without first withdrawing from the treaty.

It does not add the treaty to the Constitution. Violating a treaty is illegal, not unconstitutional. And Article VI states that it would violate U.S. law, not international law in the process. What would be unconstitutional is any new law that attempts to repudiate the provisions of a lawful treaty - without a formal withdrawal.


So, you say you are not talking about "criminal" but if you are talking about anything other than a civil action, there is no basis on which to have a trial, or to bring "charges" as the Consitution does not prescribe penalties etc. That is what a criminal code does. Which was my original point.



That may have been your original point, but it didn't have anything to do with mine. You use the terms "criminal," "civil," "trial," and "charges" as if you think I don't know what they mean. I know exactly what they mean, which is why I explicitly didn't use any of them.

*edit to add: And no, criminal trials and civil lawsuits are not the only kinds of cases that can be adjudicated.

skeptik

skeptik

New Orleans, LA
February 2004

JUN 10, 2007 12:34 AM

NickFaust said:

skeptik said:
So the question remains.
"Now, who's going to enforce that particular law?"



It is not a "law," it is an article in the Consitution. "Enforcement" implies violation of some aspect of a code.

There is no "enforcement" language in the Constitution. The only access to the courts would be through a civil action.


I don't know where you're getting that "civil action" bit, but it's patently wrong.
We're both intelligent people. But neither of us is a lawyer - Constitutional or otherwise. So I will refer you to Oyaji's responses to my original question.

Oyaji said:
The federal courts have statutory authority to enforce treaty law. The supreme court has explicit authority under the constitution to enforce treaty law.


And

Article III

Section 1. The judicial power of the United States, shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and in such inferior courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.
...
Section 2. The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority

*emphasis mine*



The Constitution grants to the federal courts the authority to hear cases regarding treaty law.

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